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It's true that I'm not familiar with too many exotic functions, but I don't understand why there exist functions that cannot be described by a Taylor series? What makes it okay to describe any particular functions with such a series? Is there any difference for different number sets? In the case of complex numbers maybe? Could somebody provide an example?

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A Taylor series exists if and only if the function is infinitely differentiable at some a. – Doug M 8 hours ago
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And even then, the Taylor series doesn't always converge to the function in some neighbor. @DougM – Thomas Andrews 8 hours ago
    
@ThomasAndrews Indeed, I thought about going there, but then decided to keep it to the point. Radius of convergence is then a whole 'nuther thing. – Doug M 8 hours ago
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The Taylor series represent the function when the Taylor remainder tends to zero, otherwise the Taylor series doesnt represent the function. – Masacroso 8 hours ago

A somewhat famous function:

$$f(x)=\begin{cases}e^{-1/x^2}&x\neq 0\\ 0&x=0 \end{cases}$$

is infinitely differentiable at $0$ with $f^{(n)}(0)=0$ for all $n$, so, even though the function is infinitely differentiable, the Taylor series around $0$ does not converge to the value of the function for any value except $x=0$.

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I've never understood why so many find this surprising; I guess it is because many are taught (incorrectly) that Taylor Series must converge to the function. I was taught from the beginning that a Taylor Series simply provides an approximation in terms of derivatives around a point and might happen to converge. In the neighborhood of $0$, the function $e^{-1/x^2}$ is approximated quite well by $0$ – Brevan Ellefsen 8 hours ago
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@BrevanEllefsen: That's not really why. It's because you would intuitively expect a smooth function to be predictable, and it seems weird that the derivatives of a function do not contain enough information to predict it at a nearby point. – Mehrdad 4 hours ago

If the limit of the Lagrange Error term does not tend to zero (as $n \to \infty $), then the function will not be equal to its Taylor Series.

You can also read more on this in Appendix $1$ in Introduction to Calculus and Analysis $1$ by Courant and John. Hope it helps.

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I think the intuition you want is the fact that functions that are not complex-differentiable* (also known as holomorphic) are not described by a Taylor series.

And to give another example that is perhaps even more unexpected than the one given by Andrew:

$$f(z) = \begin{cases} e^{-\frac{1}{z}} && \text{if } z > 0 \\ 0 && \text{otherwise}\end{cases}$$

This function is smooth and zero over an infinitely long interval, and yet nonzero, because it is not holomorphic.


*If you're not familiar with complex differentiation, it's like real differentiation, with $h$ complex:

$$f'(z) = \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(z + h) - f(z)}{h}$$

For details, see here.

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The existence of functions that cannot be described by Taylor series is actually completely intuitive; take the indicator function of the rational numbers viewed as a subset of the reals, for example. Try to keep in mind that functions can be really... arbitrary.

Much more subtle is the existence of smooth functions that aren't analytic; Thomas Andrews gives the standard example of such a beast. Fwiw, my understanding of why this is possible is that okay, there's functions that change behaviour suddenly at a point, BUT the change in behaviour at that point is so gradual, so gentle, so smooth, that none of the function's derivatives can see the change happening; therefore, the Taylor series can't, either.

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