Given that $p_k> 0$ and $p_1+p_2+\cdots+p_n=1$, prove that \begin{equation} \sum_{k=1}^n \left(p_k+\frac{1}{p_k}\right)^2\geq n^3+2n+\frac{1}{n}. \end{equation}

I believe that Cauchy's inequality should be used at some point but I haven't figured out how. Expanding the square on the left-hand side gives $2n$ immediately, but I have problem producing the cubic term and $\frac{1}{n}$. Could anyone please offer some insight? It is ok to use any method, not necessarily Cauchy's inequality.

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The minimum of the left hand side occurs when all $p_k$ are equal so $p_k = 1/n$ and the sum becomes $n\cdot(n + 1/n)^2 = n^3 + 2n + \frac{1}{n}$. – Winther 8 hours ago
    
Are you allowed to use Jensen's Inequality instead of Cauchy's Inequality? – JimmyK4542 8 hours ago
    
@JimmyK4542 Yes. Any method should be ok. – khalatnikov 8 hours ago
    
@Winther Good point! Could you please suggest a way to justify that minimality can be achieved by forcing all $p_k$ equal? – khalatnikov 8 hours ago
    
We can 'justify' it from it being a symmetric problem and symmetric problems usually have symmetric solutions. As for proving it, a common way to do it is to use the powerful (but maybe not so elegant) method of Lagrange multipliers. – Winther 8 hours ago
up vote 8 down vote accepted

Note that $$\sum_{k=1}^n \left(p_k+\frac{1}{p_k}\right)^2 =\sum_{k=1}^n p_k^2+2n+\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{p_k^2}$$

Now note that $$\left(\sum_{k=1}^n p_k^2\right)\left(\sum_{k=1}^n 1\right) \ge \left(\sum_{k=1}^n p_k\right)^2 \implies \sum_{k=1}^n p_k^2 \ge \frac{1}{n} $$$$\left(\sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{p_k^2}\right)\left(\sum_{k=1}^n p_k\right)\left(\sum_{k=1}^n p_k\right) \ge \left(\sum_{k=1}^n 1\right)^3 \implies \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{p_k^2} \ge n^3$$

From Hölder's inequality.

Adding these two inequalities, we are done.

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Let $f(x) = \left(x+\dfrac{1}{x}\right)^2 = x^2+2+\dfrac{1}{x^2}$. Then, $f''(x) = 2+\dfrac{6}{x^4} > 0$ for all $x \in [0,1]$.

Since $f$ is convex on $[0,1]$, for any $p_1,\ldots,p_n \in [0,1]$ where $p_1+\cdots+p_n = 1$, we can use Jensen's Inequality to get $$\dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{k = 1}^{n}f(p_k) \ge f\left(\dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{k = 1}^{n}p_k\right)$$ $$\dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{k = 1}^{n}\left(p_k+\dfrac{1}{p_k}\right)^2 \ge f\left(\dfrac{1}{n}\right)$$ $$\sum_{k = 1}^{n}\left(p_k+\dfrac{1}{p_k}\right)^2 \ge nf\left(\dfrac{1}{n}\right) = n^3+2n+\dfrac{1}{n}.$$

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$\sum_{k=1}^n \left(p_k+\frac{1}{p_k}\right)^2 = \sum_{k=1}^n \left(p_k^2 + \frac{1}{p_k^2}+2\right)=\sum_{k=1}^n p_k^2 + \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{p_k^2}+2n\,$. By AM-GM:

  • $\;\;\sqrt{\cfrac{1}{n}\sum_{k=1}^n p_k^2} \;\ge\; \cfrac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^n p_k = \cfrac{1}{n} \quad\implies\quad \sum_{k=1}^n p_k^2 \;\ge\; \cfrac{1}{n}$

  • $\;\;\sqrt{\cfrac{n}{\sum_{k=1}^n \cfrac{1}{p_k^2}}} \;\le\; \cfrac{1}{n} \sum_{k=1}^n p_k = \cfrac{1}{n} \quad\implies\quad \sum_{k=1}^n \cfrac{1}{p_k^2} \ge n^3$

Adding up the above gives the stated inequality and, since it's all based on AM-GM, the equality holds iff all $p_k$ are equal.

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