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In the 1920s and 1930s no Arabs felt a need to leave or flee from their homes.
There was no Jewish state at the time and the Jews didn’t have an army to “occupy” Palestinian land.
So why did Arabs attack and massacre the Jews during those years?
Is it possible that the “Naqba” and “occupation” are excuses to simply justify Arab violence?
Is it possible that many Arabs simply refused and continue to refuse any Jews living in the Holy Land?
My article for HonestReporting about pre-State Arab violence towards Jews.
https://honestreporting.com/did-arab-violence-really-start…/

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honestreporting.com
Arab violence is frequently justified because of the "Naqba" of 1948 and the "occupation" of 1967. After all, they insist, Jews forced Arabs from their homes and villages, so the Arabs have a right to fight to return to their ancestral property. But...

Explaining where things stand now in terms of the September 17 election and trying to make sense out of what could happen after the election - with Lidar Grave-Lazi on ILTV.tv.

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