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This question already has an answer here. That answer is abstract. Can you help me with some not-so-abstract examples of what the answerer is talking about? For example, give examples of hyperreal numbers which are written as numbers, if that is possible.

Another examples that I would like to understand are these statements:

Hyperreal numbers extend the reals. As well, real numbers form a subset of the real numbers.

I do not understand the answer to that question, as I have not studied mathematics long enough. Not at university level, at least.

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The usual construction of the hyperreal numbers is as sequences of real numbers with respect to an equivalence relation. For example, the real number 7 can be represented as a hyperreal number by the sequence $(7,7,7,7,7,\ldots)$, but it can also be represented by the sequence $(7,3,7,7,7,\ldots)$ (that is, an infinite number of 7s but with one 7 replaced by the number 3). Any real number $x$ can be represented as a hyperreal number by the sequence $(x,x,x,\ldots)$. An example of an infinitesimal is given by the sequence $(1,1/2,1/3,1/4,\ldots)$, which happens to be a sequence of numbers converging to $0$. An example of an infinite number in the hyperreals is given by the sequence $(1,2,3,4,\ldots)$.

The equivalence relation is a bit complicated so I won't tell you how it works but just tell you one exists, and that for any sequence of numbers there are many other sequences that correspond to the same hyperreal number. This is analogous to the construction of the rational numbers as numbers of the form $a/b$ where $a$ and $b\neq 0$ are integers, where for instance $2/6$ and $1/3$ are considered equivalent as rational numbers. The equivalence relation for rational numbers is quite simple, but I'll mention that the equivalence relation for hyperreal numbers is not constructive (it uses the axiom of choice), so it is not in general possible to tell whether two sequences are equivalent as hyperreal numbers.

When actually working with hyperreal numbers however, how they were constructed is not important (whether by the method of identifying different sequences of real numbers as above, or otherwise), and the real number 7 is simply called 7 in the hyperreal numbers, and whenever an infinitesimal is needed, one might simply call it $\varepsilon$ with no regard for which specific infinitesimal it is.

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I think this is slightly misleading - there isn't one equivalence relation! Any nonprincipal ultrafilter yields an equivalence relation which works, and different ultrafilters yield different equivalence relations. For example, there's no way to say at the outset whether $(1, 1, {1\over 2}, {1\over 2}, {1\over 3}, {1\over 3}, {1\over 4}, {1\over 4}, ...)$ is less than $(2, {1\over 2}, 1, {1\over 3}, {1\over 2}, {1\over 4}, {1\over 3}, {1\over 5}, ...)$, since they alternate being larger and smaller than each other. – Noah Schweber 16 hours ago
    
I didn't say there was only one, but I could probably have been clearer. Good point. – Samuel 16 hours ago
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You're quite right, you didn't (and your answer is really good - I upvoted) - I just wanted to point it out explicitly since it's really weird. In particular, in the sentence "The equivalence relation is a bit complicated so I won't tell you how it works but just tell you one exists", the second clause indicates that there is more than one, but the first suggests that there is a unique one by using "the". – Noah Schweber 16 hours ago
    
This answer strongly reminds me of the section on "real numbers" in Wildberger's paper, with the difference that you don't seem to recognize the imprecision involved in hiding an arbitrary infinite unspecifiable sequence in "...". – Wildcard 3 hours ago
    
@Wildcard: It is a standard convention in mathematics to write ellipses after a unique sequence if the pattern is considered obvious. – Samuel 2 hours ago

Unfortunately, there is no "concrete" description of the hyperreals. For instance, there is no way to give a concrete description of any specific infinitesimal: the infinitesimals are all "indistinguishable" from each other. (It takes a bit of work to make this claim precise, but basically, any time I have two positive infinitesimals, they have all the same properties. Contrast that with real numbers, which we can always "tell apart" by finding some rational - which is easy to describe! - in between them; actually, that just amounts to looking at their decimal expansions, and noticing a place where they differ!)

Similarly, the whole object "the field of hyperreals" is a pretty mysterious object: it's not unique in any good sense (so speaking of "the hyperreals" is really not correct), and it takes some serious mathematics to show that it even exists, much more than is required for constructing the reals.

While the hyperreals yield much more intuitive proofs of many theorems of analysis, as a structure they are much less intuitive in my opinion, largely for the reasons above.


To answer your other question, yes, the reals are (isomorphic to) a subset of (any version of) the hyperreals; that's what's meant by saying that the hyperreals extend the reals.

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Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat. – arjafi 23 mins ago

Assuming you mean your question in the practical sense rather than about doing logical foundations... picture in your mind the real numbers: that picture is exactly how the hyperreal numbers look.

I'm not even exaggerating. The hyperreal numbers, along with the rest of the nonstandard model of mathematics they're contained in, is carefully designed to have exactly the same properties that the real numbers do within the standard model.

In fact, in some philosophical approaches to the subject (e.g. how one might interpret internal set theory), it's the hyperreals within the nonstandard model that is actually what mathematicians have been studying for the past few millenia.


Except for a few esoteric applications, one only considers the hyperreals in the context of nonstandard analysis, which is all about making comparisons between standard model and a nonstandard model. One can't get the flavor of NSA by asking "what do the hyperreals look like?" — one has to ask the question "how do the reals and hyperreals compare?".

In the usual formulations, the main distinctive feature is that every real number is also a hyperreal number, and that all of the finite hyperreals can be partitioned according to their standard part.

That is, if $x$ is a finite hyperreal, there is some real $r$ such that $r-x$ is an infinitesimal hyperreal.

Phrased conversely, to each real number $r$ there is a halo of hyperreals surrounding $r$ that are an infinitesimal distance from $r$, and these halos partition the finite hyperreals.

If you are willing to continue on to the extended real numbers (i.e. $\pm \infty$), then the nonfinite hyperreals lie in the halos* of $\pm \infty$ depending on whether they are positive or negative.

Keisler's book uses the analogy of a microscope. At one level, you're studying the standard reals, and at any time you may pick a real and "zoom in" to look at its halo of nonstandard reals with that standard part.

*: Be careful that some sources define halo in a different way so that this statement is no longer true.

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This is mostly a great answer, but the second-to-last paragraph is completely wrong: there are lots of different infinite hyperreals which are not in the same halo. E.g. if $N$ is an infinite hyperreal, then so is $N^2$ . . . – Noah Schweber 7 hours ago
    
@Noah: The monad of $+\infty$ is the intersection of all standard open sets containing $+\infty$, which is precisely the set of all positive nonfinite hyperreals. ($N^2$ might not lie in the monad of $N$, but AFAIK the same goes for $\epsilon^2$ and $\epsilon$; it's sort of unfair to treat the nonfinite numbers differently in this regard) – Hurkyl 6 hours ago
    
That seems to be a point of contention - I learned (and e.g. math.brown.edu/~ysolomon/NSA.pdf confirms) that the halo of a hyperreal is the set of hyperreals infinitesimally close to it, but it looks like some other sources use the definition you give. I think, given this, that that paragraph is still misleading; it's probably worth saying what a halo is, given that there seem to be multiple definitions. – Noah Schweber 6 hours ago
    
@Noah: I have the impression the "infinitesimally close" definition comes from sources that are predominantly interested in applying the notion to finite hyperreals, and don't really care how it manifests with infinite hyperreals. When you learned this, did you really use the notion for infinite hyperreals? – Hurkyl 5 hours ago
    
(i.e. I had always thought it was a simplified definition for introductory material, rather than a genuinely different convention) – Hurkyl 5 hours ago

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